Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?
15.06.2025 12:25
While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.
Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.
What's (not “whats”) the rule?
Which Shakespeare words have completely changed meaning in modern English?
Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.
You'll usually find your answer there.
There's no rule.
Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.
Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.
If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.
Why is the government destroying the homeless instead of helping them?
Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.